Free ISMP sample questions

Correct answers: A valid, current PCI DSS Attestation of Compliance (AoC).; A SOC 2 Type II report covering the security and availability trust services criteria.

A PCI DSS AoC is mandatory proof that a service provider securely handles cardholder data. This is a primary document for security assurance in any payment processing context.

A SOC 2 Type II report provides detailed, independent assurance over a period of time about the effectiveness of a vendor's security controls. It is a standard and crucial document for third-party risk management.

Correct answer: Determine the likelihood of the threat exploiting the vulnerability and the potential impact.

The fundamental principle of risk analysis involves evaluating identified threat/vulnerability pairs. After identifying a threat and a vulnerability, the next step is to assess the likelihood of that threat successfully exploiting the vulnerability and the potential business impact if it does. This assessment is necessary to determine the overall risk level before deciding on treatment. Calculating ALE is for quantitative analysis, while implementing controls and buying insurance are risk treatment options.

Correct answer: The current Annualized Loss Expectancy (ALE) is $10,000, and the new solution would reduce the ALE to $2,000, providing a net annual benefit of $3,000.

The calculation is as follows: 1. Potential ALE (before controls) = ARO (4) * SLE ($10,000) = $40,000. 2. Current residual risk (current ALE) = Potential ALE * (1 - control effectiveness) = $40,000 * (1 - 0.75) = $10,000. 3. Projected residual risk (new ALE) = $40,000 * (1 - 0.95) = $2,000. 4. Risk reduction (annual benefit) = Current ALE - New ALE = $10,000 - $2,000 = $8,000. 5. Net annual benefit = Benefit ($8,000) - Cost of control ($5,000) = $3,000. Since this is positive, the investment is financially justified.

Correct answer: Configuring a Database Activity Monitoring (DAM) tool to alert on unusual query patterns.

The incident response cycle includes stages like Prevention, Detection, Response, and Recovery. Firewalls and encryption are primarily preventive controls. A disaster recovery plan is a recovery/responsive control. A Database Activity Monitoring (DAM) tool is a classic detective control, as its main purpose is to monitor for and alert on suspicious activities that could indicate an ongoing incident, fitting squarely into the Detection stage.

Correct answer: False

It is practically impossible and financially prohibitive to eliminate all risk. The goal of risk management is to reduce risk to an acceptable level, known as the organization's risk appetite. Residual risk is the risk that remains after controls have been implemented, and some level of residual risk must always be formally accepted by management.

Correct answer: Stage D

The "Lessons Learned" or post-mortem review is a critical part of the Post-Incident Activity stage. This activity is conducted after the incident has been fully contained, eradicated, and normal operations have been restored. Its purpose is to analyze the incident and the response effort to identify weaknesses and make improvements to prevent future occurrences and enhance future responses. Conducting it earlier would be premature.

Correct answer: To enforce strict identity verification and authorization for every resource request, regardless of its origin.

The core principle of a Zero Trust architecture is "never trust, always verify." It assumes that threats exist both inside and outside the traditional network perimeter. Therefore, it requires that every request to access a resource is authenticated and authorized based on identity and context, regardless of whether it originates from a supposedly 'trusted' internal network or an external one.

Correct answer: A motion-activated security camera.

Physical controls can be categorized as preventive, detective, or corrective. A mantrap, biometric scanner, and reinforced door are all preventive controls designed to stop unauthorized access. A motion-activated security camera is a detective control; it does not prevent entry but records the event and can trigger an alert, allowing security personnel to detect and respond to an intrusion.

Correct answer: Recommend Solution 2 because it meets the specified RTO and RPO requirements from the BIA at a lower cost.

The core principle of business continuity planning is to align disaster recovery solutions with the specific requirements defined in the Business Impact Analysis (BIA). The BIA states an RTO of 4 hours and an RPO of 15 minutes. Solution 2 (DRaaS) meets these requirements (RTO 3-4 hours, RPO ~15 minutes) and is noted as being more cost-effective. While Solution 1 (hot site) exceeds the requirements, its very high cost is not justified when a cheaper option that still meets the defined business needs is available.

Correct answers: Rule 2: Allow traffic from Internet to DMZ Web Server only on TCP ports 80 and 443.; Rule 3: Allow traffic initiated from the DMZ Web Server to the Internal LAN for database queries on TCP port 1433.; A rule allowing traffic initiated from the Internal LAN to the DMZ for management purposes (e.g., SSH on TCP port 22).

This is a standard best practice. The purpose of the DMZ is to expose only necessary services (like a web server) to the internet on their specific ports.

It is a common and acceptable practice for a web server in the DMZ to initiate connections to a database server on the more secure internal network. The rule should be specific to the required port (e.g., 1433 for MSSQL).

Administrators on the internal network need to manage the servers in the DMZ. Allowing specific, secured management traffic (like SSH or RDP) initiated from the trusted internal zone is a necessary operational rule.